I guess the royal family don’t “own” Buckingham Palace and they never did. They just have full and exclusive control over it.
There’s one very real sense in which a homeowner today owns their home more than the royal family owns Buckingham Palace - the homeowner can sell their home.
This is a good example of how private property differs from historical forms of property. The king was not allowed to just buy and sell royal palaces, flipping them for profit. This is also true for the nobility in monarchical societies. The king could entitle someone with land, but they didn’t sell it to them and the noble couldn’t then turn around and sell it for a profit. The merchants, however, hated this, because it meant that the government was in the way of making profits. This is what makes private property different. If you continue to insist that monarchies were based on private property and that democracies are not, you are going to arrive at completely incorrect conclusions because your analysis is based on fundamental misunderstandings.
I wonder why homeless people in a sovereign were never offered shelter under a palace roof? Why sleep in the palace when they could they could just die in the military on behalf of their benevolent queen?
The reason was not private property. Homelessness really started being a problem in England around the late 1300s and there wasn’t that much private property then. Back then, none of the people owned any land and all of the land was part of the kingdom and the nobility was entitled. No one was buying and selling land and houses and such for profit. It was feudal society, and serfs worked the land they lived on in exchange for the rights to live on it. The nobility sold the commodities they produced, but the land itself was relatively open and unenclosed. The Black Death destroyed a ton of social relations and lots of people became homeless. But that was event driven, not structural.
Structural homeless emerged under mercantilism. The drive for profits and the emergence of private property in England converted previously common land, entitled to nobility for the caretaking of for the whole country, into profit-driven enclosures. The nobility fenced off the land and filled them with sheep to produce wool for the market. Suddenly, homeless in London jumped to 6-times as bad as it was in NYC in 2000. The only solution to the problem ended up being sending the homeless to the Americas as colonists.
Private property creates scarcity, not abundance. I’m not arguing for the return of the monarch nor arguing that the crown was benevolent. I’m saying that feudal society was not organized around private property and in fact private property as we know it did not exist, almost at all, until the 1600s and when it emerged in Europe the effect was actually increased wealth disparity and poverty and mass migration of poor citizenry to the colonies in search of more abundance (at the expense of the indigenous inhabitants).
The same rules would apply if a president declares himself dictator, and used his authority to line his pockets via privatization of government agencies and public services under vague claims about efficiency and getting rid of beuracrats on behalf of the American tax payer.
Again, no. The United States Postal Service is a government enforced monopoly. DHL, FedEx, UPS, and other delivery services are expressions of free market competition. If the president decides to privatize the USPS so that the market can deliver the mail, that’s liberalism. It’s the very definition of liberalism. The USPS being a government enforced monopoly is nearly identical with the Royal Mail being a function of the crown. It’s ILLIBERAL, by definition of what liberalism is, and you KNOW this because as you stated, it’s the open market and unfettered competition that is liberal and it’s the government interference and enforcing monopolies or oligopolies that is against liberalism.
You are literally running up against the contradictions of liberalism in your own analysis, you just don’t see it yet.
The hospital was inefficient, so we let the horse loose and told him to go nuts. Why bother to fix a broken system when you can just destroy, and take away any public control?
Hospitals in the US were never under public control. The liberal solution to public goods was always to have private philanthropy and charity. The Catholic Church is the largest non-governmental healthcare provider in the world. And liberal market competition states that if the catholic church does a bad job at it then other organizations can compete with them and do better. The problem with hospitals was not that they were inefficient. The problem with hospitals is that they were generating revenues but not generating profits to shareholders. Again, liberalism emerged from mercantilism, and the first issuance of common stock was a way to raise private capital without the crown - private property - and the logical extension of this is that if a hospital is generating revenue, then there might be a chance for it to generate a profit and therefore we can convert the hospital into a publicly traded company and raise private capital by having private investors invest their money in an efficient capital market to buy a share of the hospital to fund its development and operations and in turn the hospital can return profits to the individual investors - all without any government involvement. And you know how that turns out. Again, that’s free market competition with individualist “meritocracy” running the show. And what it results in is scarcity, not abundance.
Remember your basic economics. Price as a function of supply and demand. If supply far exceeds demand, prices crash to zero. If prices crash to zero, you can’t generate the revenue needed to operate. Therefore, if you’re going to use markets, you must have sufficient scarcity to generate a high enough price to maintain operations, and what that means is that some people MUST go without.
Stalin didn’t own the collective, but when he decided to seize agrarian peasant land and let them die in a famine (while suppressing word of what he was doing from reaching his working class base in cities) he was doing it for the collective.
Yes. The USSR was abolishing private property at that time. The Kulaks owned their farms under a private property regime. The USSR enacted forced collectivization - they ABOLISHED private property. That’s literally what they were doing. Your argument that somehow this was the same as privatization and the antithesis of democracy shows just how broken your understanding is. The Kulaks that you are arguing favor of were relying on the private property regime for their claims to the land and the USSR was abolishing those private property claims. The Kulaks were liberal, and the USSR was illiberal.
However, the history of famines in the region is very clear - the region suffered catastrophic famines every 6 years for over a century. The USSR’s decision to collectivize the farm land was a decision in the service of ending the cycle of famines. It took about 20 years, but they did achieved it. They managed to increase the food supply by leaps and bounds through collectivization and mechanization. The Kulaks, in protest of collectivization, chose to burn their food stores and slaughter their animals and let them rot. Literally. The people who owned the private property, on the philosophical basis that they had the freedom to do so given to them by private property, chose to DESTROY THE FOOD PEOPLE RELIED ON because the USSR abolished their right to profit from their private property. And again, you have correctly identified the Kulaks as your current ideological peers, that is to say, they were liberals as you are, but surely you don’t think that destroying food in a region that suffered regular famines for over a century was the correct course of action.
After the USSR ended the root cause of famines in the region, they immediately were facing an existential war against the Third Reich. The next famine that hit the region was caused by that war. After they won the war, the USSR became the second most well-fed country in the world. That’s directly from the CIA’s research. So yes, the government of the USSR was in fact focused on the national scale problem of famine, food scarcity, nutrition, and distribution and they did in fact solve that problem for the public good and they did so espousing the liberal values of universal emancipation while rejecting the liberal power of private property.
But you don’t even HAVE to believe that it was good. You really don’t. You just have to understand your fundamental error in your analysis. You need to read about liberalism and private property. Get started by letting a.i. just summarize the readily available sources for you. Try this prompt: explain the link between liberalism and private property
Don’t only take my word here. Actually research your beliefs. Challenge your assumptions.


And yet, her takes are better than most Democrats